220-1202 Free Study Guide! with New Update 270 Exam Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 68
An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer be issued security updates and patches. Which of the following is most likely the reason the administrator received this message?
- A. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version.
- B. The OS will be considered end of life.
- C. A new version of the OS will be released soon.
- D. Support from the computer's manufacturer is expiring.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When an operating system reaches end of life (EOL), the vendor ceases issuing security updates and patches. Administrators are notified so they can plan upgrades or migrations before support ends.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following methods is a way to superficially delete files on a hard drive?
- A. Degaussing
- B. Low-level formatting
- C. Shredding
- D. Wiping
- E. Drilling
Answer: B
Explanation:
Low-level formatting removes file system structures and references without physically destroying the drive, making it a superficial deletion method compared to physical destruction techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A Windows 11 Home device is receiving constant pop-ups about an urgent need to update antivirus software to remove a detected threat. The user has been clicking the "X" button in the window frame but it always reappears. The pop-up includes an "OK" button to install the update and remove the threat. Which of the following should the user do next?
- A. Click the "OK" button to install the update
- B. Verify the current status and settings of protection measures
- C. Reinstall the Windows Operating System
- D. Run System File Checker
Answer: B
Explanation:
The user should verify the current status and settings of legitimate protection measures to determine if the pop-ups are real or part of a scam or malware infection, instead of clicking "OK" or taking drastic measures.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A user powers on their desktop computer and is immediately greeted with a black screen displaying the error message: "Operating System not found." The technician enters the BIOS and confirms that the hard drive is correctly identified and is set as the first boot device. There are no unusual clicking noises coming from the drive. Which of the following has MOST likely become corrupted or is missing?
- A. Trusted Platform Module
- B. New Technology File System
- C. Master boot record
- D. Basic input/output system
Answer: C
Explanation:
"No OS found" commonly indicates the firmware can't locate boot instructions for the installed OS. If the drive isn't obviously failing (no unusual noises) and BIOS/UEFI settings are reasonable, a classic cause is a corrupt Master Boot Record (MBR) (on MBR-partitioned disks). Mike Meyers' Lab Manual explains that when BIOS can't find an OS, causes may include configuration issues or drive problems, but also states: "If the correct drive is already first in the boot sequence, the master boot record... may be corrupt and need to be rebuilt." The Lab Manual also explains what the MBR does: the first sector contains boot code that informs the system about installed operating systems, and "without this bit of code, your OS will never load." The All-in-One guide describes the same: BIOS looks at the first sector for instructions, and without the MBR code, the OS won't load.
NTFS corruption wouldn't typically present as "no OS found" at the firmware stage, and TPM issues usually create different security/boot errors. Therefore, MBR (D) is most likely.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A help desk technician recently installed an SSH client on a workstation in order to access remote servers.
What does this enable?
- A. To utilize an SSO connection
- B. To securely establish a console session
- C. To facilitate device log reviews
- D. To encrypt and decrypt protected messages
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell)allows encrypted console sessions to access and administer remote servers.
FromQuentin Docter - Complete Study Guide:
"Secure Shell (SSH) provides an encrypted console session to manage Linux, UNIX, or network devices securely over TCP port 22." .
NEW QUESTION # 73
After a recent mobile OS upgrade to a smartphone, a user attempts to access their corporate email, but the application does not open. A technician restarts the smartphone, but the issue persists. Which of the following is the most likely way to resolve the issue?
- A. Registering the smartphone with an MDM solution
- B. Clearing the cache partition
- C. Installing a third-party client
- D. Updating the failed software
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn't been updated to support the latest OS version.
B: Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn't address app crashes due to incompatibility.
C: A third-party client might help, but it's not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.
DL Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses compatibility concerns.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot mobile OS and application issues.
Study Guide Section: App compatibility and mobile software updates
NEW QUESTION # 74
After new device software for a webcam is installed, a Windows PC is experiencing BSOD. The BSOD occurs during a videoconference call. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. File a warranty claim with the manufacturer
- B. Update the anti-malware signature and scan the system
- C. Reconnect the webcam to the computer
- D. Start in Safe Mode and roll back the device driver
Answer: D
Explanation:
Starting in safe mode and rolling back the device driver can resolve BSOD issues caused by newly installed or incompatible webcam drivers.
NEW QUESTION # 75
The battery on a user's smartphone discharges quickly when the user travels. The smartphone was replaced two weeks ago. Which of the following should a technician do first?
- A. Provide an external battery to extend the usage time
- B. Ensure that the charging port is working as expected
- C. Replace the battery with a higher capacity option
- D. Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
High battery drain is often due to apps running in the background or using GPS during travel. Thefirst stepshould always be tocheck battery usage statisticsto see if an application is misbehaving.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"Travel conditions can increase app activity, especially navigation or social media. Check app battery usage before assuming hardware faults."
NEW QUESTION # 76
A technician installs VPN client software that has a software bug from the vendor. After the vendor releases an update to the software, the technician attempts to reinstall the software but keeps getting an error message that the network adapter for the VPN already exists. Which of the following should the technician do next to mitigate this issue?
- A. Update the network adapter's firmware.
- B. Delete hidden network adapters.
- C. Run the latest OS security updates.
- D. Map the network adapter to the new software.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When uninstalling and reinstalling network-based software like a VPN client, orphaned or "ghost" adapters can linger in the system, especially if they're no longer visible in Device Manager.
Removing these hidden adapters clears the path for the updated client software to recreate its virtual network interface without conflict.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A network technician notices that most of the company's network switches are now end-of-life and need to be upgraded. What should the technician do first?
- A. Implement the change
- B. Schedule the change
- C. Approve the change
- D. Document the change
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before any change is implemented, it must be documented as part of change management procedures. This ensures transparency, review, and tracking.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A location is experiencing under-voltage events during peak periods. Which of the following should be deployed at this location?
- A. Proper ventilation
- B. Surge protector
- C. UPS
- D. PDU
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 79
A technician is preparing to replace the batteries in a rack-mounted UPS system. After ensuring the power is turned off and the batteries are fully discharged, the technician needs to remove the battery modules from the bottom of the rack. Which of the following steps should the technician take?
- A. Ensure the fire suppression system is ready to be activated.
- B. Use appropriate lifting techniques and guidelines.
- C. Wear a face mask to filter out any harmful fumes.
- D. Place the removed batteries in an antistatic bag.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
UPS batteries are heavy and often located at the bottom of racks to maintain balance. Safe removal requires the use of correct lifting techniques to avoid injury. OSHA and workplace safety standards emphasize ergonomic handling when dealing with heavy equipment.
A: Fire suppression readiness is important for fire safety but not specifically relevant to battery removal.
C: Antistatic bags are for electronic components, not heavy battery modules.
D: A face mask is not generally necessary unless there is a chemical leak, which is not indicated here.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.3: Explain common safety and environmental impacts and procedures.
Study Guide Section: Safe handling procedures - lifting techniques, battery handling
NEW QUESTION # 80
A user is working from home and is unable to access work files on a company laptop. Which of the following should a technician configure to fix the network access issue?
- A. Wireless network
- B. Virtual private network
- C. Wide-area network
- D. Proxy network settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user's home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers.
Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Users are reporting that an unsecured network is broadcasting with the same name as the normal wireless network. They are able to access the internet but cannot connect to the file share servers. Which of the following best describes this issue?
- A. Unreachable DNS server
- B. Incorrect IP address
- C. Rogue wireless access point
- D. Virtual local area network misconfiguration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This scenario describes a rogue access point - a malicious or unauthorized wireless access point that uses the same SSID as the legitimate network. Users may connect to it unknowingly, which can result in limited network access, data interception, or redirection of traffic. The inability to reach internal file servers supports this being an unauthorized AP with no connection to internal resources.
A: A DNS issue would impact name resolution, not connectivity to file servers directly.
B: VLAN issues generally affect segmentation, not mimic SSID problems.
C: An incorrect IP address could cause connectivity issues, but not in the presence of a malicious AP broadcasting the same SSID.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast wireless and physical security threats.
Study Guide Section: Rogue access points and their detection
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following prevents forced entry into a building?
- A. PIV card
- B. Bollard
- C. Motion-activated lighting
- D. Video surveillance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bollards are sturdy, fixed posts installed around buildings or sensitive areas to physically block vehicles and prevent ramming attacks or forced vehicular entry. Unlike surveillance or lighting, bollards provide a direct physical barrier.
NEW QUESTION # 83
An end user is unable to access the intranet. A technician needs to confirm whether the Windows web server is online and functioning. Which of the following default remote access technologies would the technician most likely use to remotely connect to the server?
- A. RDP
- B. VNC
- C. SPICE
- D. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), because RDP is the default remote access technology for Windows servers. It allows technicians to remotely connect to the graphical desktop environment of a Windows server to verify services, logs, and system status.
According to the Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, RDP is built into Windows operating systems and is commonly used by administrators to manage Windows servers and workstations. It provides full access to the desktop, making it ideal for checking whether services such as IIS (Internet Information Services) are running properly.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz - All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while SSH is commonly used for Linux and network devices, Windows servers typically rely on RDP for administrative access. VNC is a third-party remote desktop solution and is not enabled by default on Windows systems.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that SPICE is primarily used in virtualized environments and is not a standard Windows remote access tool.
Because the technician needs to verify a Windows web server's operational status using a built-in method, RDP is the most appropriate and likely technology, making C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 84
During a routine security audit, an employee's smartphone is flagged with several security alerts.
The alerts indicate that there have been multiple failed login attempts and that an unverified application was recently downloaded. Which of the following actions should a technician take first on the employee's smartphone?
- A. Scan the smartphone for malware.
- B. Reinstall the smartphone's latest official OS version.
- C. Update the smartphone's security settings and policies.
- D. Reset the device remotely.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first action should be to scan the smartphone for malware, since the alerts indicate suspicious activity and an unverified application installation, which may have introduced malicious software.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A technician notices that the weekly backup is taking too long to complete. The daily backups are incremental. Which of the following would most likely resolve the issue?
- A. Changing the backup window
- B. Performing incremental weekly backups
- C. Running synthetic full weekly backups
- D. Increasing the backup storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A synthetic full backup combines the last full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without re-reading data from the source system. This method significantly reduces the backup window and network impact. It is especially useful when traditional full backups are too time-consuming.
A). Changing the backup window only shifts timing, not duration.
B). Incremental weekly backups would lack a proper full recovery point and aren't ideal alone.
C). Storage space isn't the bottleneck in backup speed-it's read/write operations and network load.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.2: Summarize backup and recovery concepts.
Study Guide Section: Backup types - full, incremental, differential, and synthetic backups
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following threats is shoulder surfing an example of?
- A. Zero-day
- B. Social engineering
- C. Evil twin
- D. Brute-force
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shoulder surfing is a social engineering threat because the attacker captures sensitive information by observing the user's actions, relying on human behavior rather than exploiting a technical vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION # 87
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