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BCS CTFL4 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 48
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?
- A. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.
- B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.
- C. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.
- D. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The testing of software does not demonstrate the absence of defects, but rather the presence of defects or the conformance of the software to the specified requirements1. Testing can never prove that the software is defect-free, as it is impossible to test all possible scenarios, inputs, outputs, and behaviors of the software2. Testing can only provide a level of confidence in the quality of the software, based on the coverage, effectiveness, and efficiency of the testing activities3.
The other options are correct because:
A . Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system, as they verify that the system meets the expected quality attributes and satisfies the needs and expectations of the users and clients4. Risk is the potential for loss or harm due to the occurrence of an undesirable event5. Testing can help to identify, analyze, prioritize, and mitigate the risks associated with the software product and project6.
C . Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities, as they provide feedback on the quality of the software and the effectiveness of the development processes7. Defects are flaws or errors in the software that cause it to deviate from the expected or required results or behavior. Testing can help to detect, report, track, and resolve the defects, and prevent them from recurring in the future.
D . Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality, as it can ensure that the requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and aligned with the needs and expectations of the users and clients. Requirements are the specifications of what the software should do and how it should do it. Testing can help to validate that the requirements are met by the software, and verify that the software is implemented according to the requirements.
Reference =
1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 10
2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 11
3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 12
4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 13
5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 14
[8] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 15
[9] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
[10] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 17
[11] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 18
[12] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 19
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?
- A. Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.
- B. The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.
- C. Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.
- D. It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Exhaustive testing (testing all input combinations) is practically impossible except in trivial cases (C). Instead, testers focus on risk-based, prioritized, and efficient test techniques. The seven principles of testing in the ISTQB syllabus highlight that exhaustive testing is infeasible, and therefore, techniques such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, and risk-based testing are used to optimize test coverage.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?
- A. Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process
- B. The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.
- C. All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find
- D. All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 51
To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column) TopicDescription
- A. How the system performs the specific behaviour.
8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task. - B. ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.
- C. External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.
- D. A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E
- E. A TO A, B TO B, CTOB, DTO E AND E TO D
- F. Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.
- G. A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D
- H. A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct matching of the topics with their descriptions is as follows:
* Functional behaviour: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations (A to C).
* Quality characteristics: How the system performs the specific behaviour (B to A).
* Scenarios: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task (C to B).
* Business rules: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints (D to E).
* External interfaces: Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world (E to D).
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?
- A. Static testing reduces testing costs and time.
- B. Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.
- C. Static testing increases development costs and time.
- D. Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The statement that "static testing increases development costs and time" is NOT correct. Static testing actually helps to reduce development costs and time by identifying defects early in the development process before dynamic testing is performed. Early detection of defects reduces the cost and effort required to fix them and prevents the propagation of defects to later stages, thus reducing overall testing and development costs.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Match each objective to the correct test level
Objective:
A) Verifying whether the functional and non-functlonal behaviors of the system are as designed and specified.
B) Verifying whether the functional and non-functlonal behaviors of the interfaces are as designed.
C) Verifying whether the functional and non-functional behaviors of the components are as designed and specified.
D) Establishing confidence in the quality of the system as a whole.
Test Level:
1. Component testing.
2. Integration testing.
3. System testing.
4. Acceptance testing.
- A. A2, B3, Cl, D4
- B. A3, B2. C4. D1
- C. A3. B2. C1. D4
Answer: C
Explanation:
The test levels and their objectives can be matched as follows:
Verifying whether the functional and non-functional behaviors of the system are as designed and specified (A3: System testing).
Verifying whether the functional and non-functional behaviors of the interfaces are as designed (B2: Integration testing).
Verifying whether the functional and non-functional behaviors of the components are as designed and specified (C1: Component testing).
Establishing confidence in the quality of the system as a whole (D4: Acceptance testing).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which review type, also known as a "buddy check", is commonly used in Agile development?
- A. Informal review.
- B. Walkthrough.
- C. Technical review.
- D. Inspection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Agile development, an informal review, often referred to as a "buddy check," is a common review type. Informal reviews are unstructured and involve a pair of colleagues reviewing each other's work to identify defects early and provide immediate feedback. This type of review is less formal than inspections or walkthroughs and is particularly suitable for Agile environments where rapid feedback and flexibility are essential.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:
[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages
[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems
[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite
[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks Which of the following statements is true?
- A. [I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks
- B. [IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks
- C. [II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk
- D. [I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because product risks are risks that affect the quality of the software product, such as defects, failures, or non-compliance with requirements or standards. Project risks are risks that affect the project's schedule, budget, resources, or scope, such as delays, cost overruns, skill gaps, or scope changes. In this case, [I] and [IV] are product risks, as they relate to the accessibility and security of the software product, which are quality attributes. [II] and [III] are project risks, as they relate to the delivery time and the test automation skills of the test team, which are project factors. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 56
Confirmation testing is performed after:
- A. a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix
- B. a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible
- C. a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed
- D. the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect.
Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.4.1, page 28; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 15.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?
- A. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques
- B. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code
- C. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems
- D. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more defects. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 58
What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?
- A. Integration testing
- B. Exploratory testing
- C. Structural testing
- D. Acceptance testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Structural testing is a type of testing that measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Structural testing, also known as white-box testing or glass-box testing, is based on the internal structure, design, or implementation of the software. Structural testing aims to verify that the software meets the specified quality attributes, such as performance, security, reliability, or maintainability, by exercising the code paths, branches, statements, conditions, or data flows. Structural testing uses various coverage metrics, such as function coverage, line coverage, branch coverage, or statement coverage, to determine how much of the code has been tested and to identify any untested or unreachable parts of the code. Structural testing can be applied at any level of testing, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, or acceptance testing, but it is more commonly used at lower levels, where the testers have access to the source code.
The other options are not correct because they are not types of testing that measure their effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Acceptance testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software meets the acceptance criteria and the user requirements. Acceptance testing is usually performed by the end-users or customers, who may not have access to the source code or the technical details of the software. Acceptance testing is more concerned with the functionality, usability, or suitability of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Integration testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software components or subsystems work together as expected. Integration testing is usually performed by the developers or testers, who may use both structural and functional testing techniques to check the interfaces, interactions, or dependencies between the components or subsystems. Integration testing is more concerned with the integration logic, data flow, or communication of the software, rather than its individual lines of code. Exploratory testing is a type of testing that involves simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution. Exploratory testing is usually performed by the testers, who use their creativity, intuition, or experience to explore the software and discover any defects, risks, or opportunities for improvement. Exploratory testing is more concerned with the behavior, quality, or value of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54; Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.4: Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle, Pages 11-13; Chapter 3: Static Testing, Section 3.4: Exploratory Testing, Pages 40-41.
NEW QUESTION # 59
What is test oracle?
- A. The source for the actual results
- B. The source of input conditions
- C. The source of lest objectives
- D. The source of expected results
Answer: D
Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.
Which of the following review types does this review refer to?
- A. Walkthrough
- B. Informal review
- C. Inspection
- D. Audit
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?
- A. When a test automation approach needs to be determined.
- B. When a high level of test independence may be required.
- C. When the team dynamics need to be improved.
- D. When acceptance tests need to be created.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The whole team approach involves collaboration among all team members, including testers, developers, and business representatives, to achieve quality goals. However, this approach may not be suitable in situations where a high level of test independence is required. Test independence is essential in cases where unbiased testing is critical, such as in regulated environments or where high-risk systems are involved. This is because team members might unintentionally influence each other's work, leading to potential bias in testing outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?
- A. The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.
- B. Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.
- C. A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.
- D. The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Theplanning phase of the review process(C) includes defining thereview's purpose, scope, and exit criteriato ensure alignment.Option Ais part of the defect management phase,Bhappens during individual preparation, andDtakes place in the review meeting.
NEW QUESTION # 63
An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.
Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)
- A. aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x
- B. 1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby
- C. 1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19
- D. 1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length is the set of test cases represented by option D. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that focuses on the values at the boundaries of an equivalence partition, such as the minimum and maximum values, or the values just above and below the boundaries. A two-value boundary value analysis uses two values for each boundary, one representing the valid value and one representing the invalid value. For example, if the valid range of values is from 4 to 7, then the two values for the lower boundary are 3 and 4, and the two values for the upper boundary are 7 and 8. The test cases in option D use these values for the password length, while also satisfying the other requirements of the password, such as containing at least one numeric character, one capital letter, and one lowercase letter. The test cases in option D are:
1RhT: a 4-character password that is valid
rSp53: a 5-character password that is valid
3N3e10: a 6-character password that is valid
8sBdby: an 8-character password that is invalid The test cases in the other options are incorrect, because they either use values that are not at the boundaries of the password length, or they do not meet the other requirements of the password. For example, the test cases in option A are:
1xA: a 3-character password that is invalid, but it does not contain a capital letter aB11: a 4-character password that is valid Pq1ZZab: a 7-character password that is valid
7iDD0a1x: an 8-character password that is invalid Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design Techniques1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partition2
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?
- A. Fault seeding tool.
- B. Static analysis tool.
- C. Test data preparation tool
- D. Containerisation tool
Answer: B
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is best suited for determining source code compliance with coding standards. These tools analyze the code without executing it and can check for adherence to coding standards, syntax errors, and other static properties of the code. The ISTQB CTFL syllabus emphasizes the role of static analysis tools in verifying that code meets predefined standards and guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following statements best describes the way in which decision coverage is measured?
- A. Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the tests, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.
- B. It is not possible to accurately measure decision coverage.
- C. Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.
- D. Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Decision coverage, also known as branch coverage, is measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object. It ensures that every possible branch (true/false) decision in the code has been executed at least once.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 4.3.2
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?
- A. Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities
- B. Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities
- C. Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities
- D. Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ISTQB fundamental test process consists of five main phases, as described in the ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.2, page 15:
* Test planning and control: This phase involves defining the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, risks, and metrics, as well as monitoring and controlling the test activities and results throughout the test process.
* Test analysis and design: This phase involves analyzing the test basis (such as requirements, specifications, or user stories) to identify test conditions (such as features, functions, or scenarios) that need to be tested, and designing test cases and test procedures (such as inputs, expected outcomes, and execution steps) to cover the test conditions. This phase also involves evaluating the testability of the test basis and the test items (such as software or system components), and selecting and implementing test techniques (such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, or state transition testing) to achieve the test objectives and optimize the test coverage and efficiency.
* Test implementation and execution: This phase involves preparing the test environment (such as hardware, software, data, or tools) and testware (such as test cases, test procedures, test data, or test scripts) for test execution, and executing the test procedures or scripts according to the test plan and schedule. This phase also involves logging the outcome of test execution, comparing the actual results with the expected results, and reporting any discrepancies as incidents (such as defects, errors, or failures).
* Evaluating exit criteria and reporting: This phase involves checking if the planned test activities have been completed and the exit criteria (such as quality, coverage, or risk levels) have been met, and reporting the test results and outcomes to the stakeholders. This phase also involves making recommendations for the release or acceptance decision based on the test results and outcomes, and identifying any residual risks (such as known defects or untested areas) that need to be addressed or mitigated.
* Test closure activities: This phase involves finalizing and archiving the testware and test environment for future reuse, and evaluating the test process and the test project against the test objectives and the test plan. This phase also involves identifying any lessons learned and best practices, and communicating the findings and suggestions for improvement to the relevant parties.
References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.2, page 15; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 37-38; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 88, page 32.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?
- A. Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.
- B. Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.
- C. When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.
- D. Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
While configuration management is crucial for maintaining consistent versions of software artifacts and supporting the build process, it does not directly increase the chances of finding defects in the software under test. Version-controlled test ware ensures that the correct versions of test cases and other test artifacts are used, but it is the quality and thoroughness of the tests that determine the effectiveness of defect detection.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.4
NEW QUESTION # 68
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