Latest 156-561 Pass Guaranteed Exam Dumps Certification Sample Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 61
What can a Security Admin do in a situation where collecting additional log file information to examine a CloudGuard Controller issue is required?
- A. Execute a debug on the SMS
- B. Set the operation to TRACE to collect more data.
- C. Search for the information in the objects database.
- D. Verify connectivity between the SMS and the SDDC.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
What can Data Center Objects represent?
- A. Cloud Data Center, Tags, subnets, or hosts
- B. vNets, VPCs or Network Security Groups
- C. Compute, Regions or Availability Zones
- D. Public IP, Private IP, NAT or IAM roles
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 63
What are two basic rules Check Point recommends for building an effective policy?
- A. Implicit and Explicit Rules
- B. VPN and Admin Rules
- C. Access and Identity Rules
- D. Cleanup and Stealth Rule
Answer: D
Explanation:
Best Practice - These are basic Access Control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases:
Stealth rule that prevents direct access to the Security Gateway.
Cleanup rule that drops all traffic that is not matched by the earlier rules in the policy.
NEW QUESTION # 64
On Azure, can you deploy a Check Point Standalone installation (Management + GW)?
- A. Yes, via GitHub only
- B. Yes. via PowerShell only
- C. No. it is not supported
- D. Yes, via solution template / PowerShell / Marketplace
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 65
CloudGuard uses several management tools to create and manage Security Policies. Which is NOT one of those tools?
- A. CloudGuard Controller
- B. SmartConsole
- C. CLI
- D. Gaia Portal
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 66
Automatically adding or removing cloud instances based on load is called:
- A. Vertical Scaling
- B. Super Scaling
- C. Hyper Scaling
- D. Horizontal Scaling
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 67
What are the Automation tools?
- A. AMls
- B. Terraform and Ansible
- C. CloudFormation
- D. API, CLI, Scripts, Shells and Templates
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 68
What is a Security Zone?
- A. A Security Zone is the subnet of each of the firewall's interfaces. All other Spoke networks are peered with the Security Zone network.
- B. A Cloud Service Provider (CSP) provides a network zone to deploy virtual security device.
CloudGuard Security Gateways and Security Management Servers are deploying in this Security Zone so that they are protected from the rest of the world. - C. A Security Zone is the network in which the Security Management and SmartConsole are deployed. This can be in one of the Spoke networks on the Cloud or it can be in on-premise network
- D. A Security Zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways bound together and used directly in the Rulebase. It allows administrators to define the Security Policy based on network interfaces rather than IP addresses.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Security Zone object represents a part of the network (for example, the internal network or the external network). You assign a network interface of a Security Gateway to a Security Zone.
NEW QUESTION # 69
How does micro-segmentation create boundaries and provide network segmentation for CloudGuard?
- A. It applies a Security Gateway that enforces firewall policies to accept legitimate network traffic flows and deny unauthorized traffic
- B. It places inspection points between different applications, services, and single hosts within the same network segment.
- C. It creates borders within the cloud's perimeter to protect the major inbound and outbound traffic intersections.
- D. Micro-segmentation does not create boundaries.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 70
Can you configure Micro segmentation (control traffic inside a subnet) on Azure?
- A. Yes, via UDR
- B. Yes, via System Routes
- C. No, Micro segmentation is not supported on Azure
- D. Yes, via routes on vNet
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 71
On Public Cloud, what is included in the BYOL (Bring your own license) package?
- A. 1 year subscription for Services & Support
- B. 1 year subscription includes: Software, Services & Support
- C. Perpetual licenses for Software & Services
- D. Perpetual licenses for Software only
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 72
What does VPC stands for in AWS?
- A. Valid Public Cloud
- B. Virtual Protected Cluster
- C. Virtual Private Cloud
- D. Video Player Controller
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which cloud components specify the Workloads associated with traffic and tell load balancers which Workloads are members of the same group?
- A. Health Checks
- B. Target Groups
- C. Dynamic assignment
- D. Listening Rules
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 74
How is CloudGuard for Azure licensed in BYOL (Bring your own license) mode?
- A. Per Gateway
- B. Per vCore
- C. Per Socket
- D. Per usage
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 75
Cloud Security Posture Management operational modes for cloud accounts are:
- A. Read Only, Read/Write. Full Protection
- B. Read Only, Full Protection. Region Lock
- C. Read Only, Read/Write. Region Lock
- D. Read/Write, Partial Protection, Full Protection
Answer: B
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 76
A utility that allows integration between SMS, the CloudGuard Network Solution, and CSPs, allowing the SMS to monitor and control scaling solutions in their associated cloud environments is called
- A. CloudGuard Scanner and Enforcer (CSE)
- B. CloudGuard Controller (CC)
- C. CloudGuard Controller and Enforcer (CCE)
- D. CloudGuard Management Extension (CME)
Answer: D
Explanation:
CME is a tool that runs on Check Point's Security Management Server and Multi-Domain Servers running Gaia OS. CME allows cloud native integration between Check Point CloudGuard IaaS solutions and Cloud platforms.
As a Service that runs on Check Point Management Servers, it continuously monitors CloudGuard IaaS solutions deployed in different cloud vendors and synchronizes them with the Security Management Server.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which function do Load Balancers perform?
- A. To secure balance between private and public cloud
- B. Direct internet traffic to spoke networks
- C. Restrict traffic loads between servers
- D. Trigger capacity on security gateways
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 78
What is Performance Efficiency?
- A. The ability to support development and run workloads effectively
- B. The ability to use cloud resources efficiently for meeting system requirements, and maintaining that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve
- C. The ability of a Workload to function correctly and consistently in all expected
- D. In terms of the cloud, security is about architecting every workload to prevent
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Performance Efficiency pillar includes the ability to use computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements, and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve. You can find prescriptive guidance on implementation in the Performance Efficiency Pillar whitepaper.
NEW QUESTION # 79
How does the Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) service deliver intelligence threat feeds, enforce compliance policies, and apply security enhancements to the environment?
- A. The Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) does this by using the SOAP protocol and XML
- B. The Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) does this by using SIC connections on the cloud
- C. The Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) does this by using SSH and microagents
- D. The Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) does this by using REST APIs
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 80
Deployment of a Security Gateway was initiated on AWS using a CloudFormation Template available through sk111013. The deployment process, after a while failed and rolled back. What could be the probable cause of this failure and roll back?
- A. The specific software being deployed was not subscribed to in the AWS Marketplace Subscriptions
- B. The web browser used to run the template was not compatible
- C. The template used was for some cloud platform other than AWS
- D. The Security Management Server that will be managing the Security Gateway had a lower version
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 81
After the cloud acquisition process finishes. Cloud Security Posture Security module secures access to cloud environments by performing controls access to cloud environments by performing the following tasks: Visualizes Security Policies in cloud environments, control access to protected cloud assets with short-term dynamic access leases, and______________.
- A. Deploys new internal cloud resources
- B. Deploys new management resources
- C. Manages Network Security Groups
- D. Automatically Installs Policies
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which cloud components specify the Workloads associated with traffic and tell load balancers which Workloads are members of the same group?
- A. Health Checks
- B. Target Groups
- C. Dynamic assignment
- D. Listening Rules
Answer: B
Explanation:
After the load balancer receives a request, it evaluates the listener rules in priority order to determine which rule to apply, and then selects a target from the target group for the rule action.
You can configure listener rules to route requests to different target groups based on the content of the application traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 83
The Administrators ability to protect data, systems, and assets While taking advantage of cloud technologies is commonly called
- A. Operational Excellence
- B. Security
- C. Cost Optimization
- D. Performance Efficiency
Answer: B
Explanation:
The security pillar encompasses the ability to protect data, systems, and assets to take advantage of cloud technologies to improve your security.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Auto Scaling is supported by Check Point on which two cloud platforms?
- A. vCloudAir & Azure
- B. AWS & Google Cloud & NSX
- C. Azure & AWS
- D. Google Cloud & Azure
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 85
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