Pass ASIS-PSP Exam - Real Test Engine PDF with 323 Questions
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ASIS-PSP exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions that are divided into four domains: physical security assessment, application, design, and integration of physical security systems, implementation of physical security measures, and management of physical security operations. Candidates have four hours to complete the exam, and a passing score is 70%. ASIS-PSP exam is computer-based and can be taken at a Prometric testing center. Candidates must meet certain eligibility requirements, such as having a minimum of five years of experience in physical security or a related field, to be able to take the exam.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which sensor is commonly used on doors and/or windows?
- A. Electromechanical
- B. Infrasonic
- C. Capacitance
- D. Fiber optic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Electromechanical sensors, including magnetic reed switches and contact sensors, are the most common type used on doors and windows. They detect the opening or closing of an entry point and are widely deployed in intrusion detection systems.
A (Capacitance), C (Infrasonic), and D (Fiber optic) sensors are more specialized and not commonly used for standard door/window monitoring.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Intrusion Detection Devices
POA Manual - Sensor Technologies and Applications
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is NOT of the basic trends of security services?
- A. All of the above
- B. Attract better qualified individuals
- C. Regulate training and standards
- D. Disarm security personnel
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 88
When sudden widespread destruction of data both on the computer system and on the peripheral devices occurs, the machine is possibly infected with a:
- A. Innocuous Bug
- B. Hostile worm
- C. Trojan Horse
- D. Catastrophic Virus
Answer: D
Explanation:
A catastrophic virus causes widespread and often irrecoverable damage to data on a system and its connected devices. Such viruses are designed to rapidly corrupt, delete, or overwrite data, leading to system failure and loss of operational capability.
Innocuous Bug (A) implies minimal or no harm.
Hostile worm (C) can be destructive but is not a defined term for this scenario.
Trojan Horse (D) is deceptive but does not usually cause sudden widespread destruction immediately.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Virus Classifications and Impact
PSP Study Guide - Malware Threat Profile
NEW QUESTION # 89
What is an example of a Physical Security Personnel metric?
- A. Identification of malicious intent
- B. Mean time to mitigate vulnerabilities
- C. Determination of unauthorized access
- D. Integrator response to a service request
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Physical Security Personnel metric measures the performance or responsiveness of individuals or teams responsible for maintaining physical security systems. "Integrator response to a service request" measures how quickly and effectively a technician or support provider addresses security system issues-making it a valid personnel performance metric.
A and C relate to threat detection or monitoring, not personnel metrics.
B is a system-level metric, not specific to personnel.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Security Operations and Performance Metrics
POA Manual - Maintenance and Support Standards
NEW QUESTION # 90
What implies that the confinement is for personal advantage rather than to bring the plaintiff to court?
- A. False imprisonment
- B. Battery
- C. None of the above
- D. Confinement
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 91
Taking personal property in such a way that the plaintiff's use or right of possession of chattel is restricted is called:
- A. Conversion
- B. Constraint
- C. Restriction
- D. Transfer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which terrorism requires organization and some type of leadership, recruitment, training, and retention of members?
- A. State terrorism
- B. Modern terrorism
- C. Group terrorism
- D. Individual terrorism
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation and References
Group terrorism involves an organized entity that includes a leadership hierarchy, recruitment infrastructure, training procedures, and operations planning. These groups typically have defined ideological goals and logistics networks. Examples include Hezbollah, al-Qaeda, and the FARC.
References:
ASIS International, POA Manual, Chapter: Security Threat Groups
ASIS PSP Certification Reference, Domain 1
NEW QUESTION # 93
When chief executive officers have authority delegated by the senior executive to whom they report and they are granted a part of authority of their line superior, this is known as:
- A. Control authority
- B. Dominance authority
- C. Financial authority
- D. Staff authority
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 94
Worms take over computer memory and deny its use to legitimate programs.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 95
If a crime occurs on a company's property, the company can be considered "on notice." A subsequent occurrence of a similar crime would then be considered:
- A. Legally binding
- B. The result of inadequate security
- C. Foreseeable
- D. A breach of duty
Answer: C
Explanation:
Once a crime has occurred on company property, the organization is considered "on notice." If a similar incident happens again, it can be deemed "foreseeable," and the company may be held liable for failing to prevent it.
B and D (Inadequate security, breach of duty) may result from foreseeability, but are not the legal principle itself.
C (Legally binding) is unrelated to crime foreseeability in this context.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Legal Concepts in Security
POA Manual - Premises Liability and Crime Foreseeability
NEW QUESTION # 96
What generally means removing the risk to the company by paying for the protection of an insurance policy?
- A. Self-assurance
- B. Collateral
- C. Risk transfer
- D. Security
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk transfer refers to shifting the financial burden of potential losses from an organization to a third party, typically through insurance. By paying a premium, the company secures coverage that will compensate for specific losses, thereby reducing its own financial exposure.
References from PSP: ASIS POA - Risk Management and Insurance Strategies; PSP Study Manual - Financial Risk Treatment Options
NEW QUESTION # 97
An owner's acceptance of a security system marks the beginning of:
- A. Phase II testing
- B. Site acceptance testing
- C. The warranty period
- D. Phase II assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
The owner's formal acceptance of a security system-usually after site acceptance testing-is the point at which the warranty period typically begins. From this moment, the vendor or contractor is responsible for addressing defects or performance issues as stipulated in the contract.
B and C (Phase II references) are not standard project stages.
D (Site acceptance testing) occurs before acceptance and warranty activation.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Project Phases and System Acceptance
POA Manual - Contractual Obligations and Warranty Initiation
NEW QUESTION # 98
A set of unwanted instructions executed on a computer and resulting in a variety of effects is called:
- A. All of the above
- B. Virus
- C. Bug
- D. Worm
Answer: A
Explanation:
A virus is a type of malicious software that attaches itself to legitimate files and spreads when those files are executed.
A worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself to spread to other computers without needing to attach to a host file.
A bug refers to an error or flaw in software, but in the context of this question (malicious instructions causing effects), it can contribute to vulnerabilities exploited by malware.
Since all these can involve sets of unwanted instructions leading to harmful effects, "All of the above" is the most accurate answer.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Cybersecurity Threats and Malware Types
ASIS POA Manual - Information Security and System Integrity
NEW QUESTION # 99
Who generally provide an advisory or service function to a line executive?
- A. Staff personnel
- B. Merchandiser
- C. Chief financial officer
- D. Retail marketer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Staff personnel serve in a supportive or advisory capacity to the organization's line executives. They provide specialized knowledge, consultation, and services (e.g., legal, HR, finance) without having direct authority over operations. Their role is crucial in supporting efficient decision-making and strategic planning.
CFO (A) may be a staff officer but is a specific example.
Merchandiser (B) and Retail marketer (D) are job functions, not general categories of organizational roles.
References:
ASIS International - POA Manual: Organizational Dynamics
PSP Study Guide - Domain 1: Security Organizational Structure
NEW QUESTION # 100
The moment the fire begins, when fuel, air, and an ignition source all come together at the right rate for the correct period of time id called:
- A. Ignition stage
- B. Incipient stage
- C. Free burning
- D. Pyrolysis stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ignition stage is the point at which a fire starts. This occurs when fuel, heat, and oxygen are present in the correct combination and for the right duration. It marks the beginning of combustion and transitions the scenario from a fire hazard to an active fire.
Free burning (A) is a later stage where flames are fully developed.
Pyrolysis stage (C) refers to pre-ignition gas release.
Incipient stage (D) can be synonymous with ignition but more commonly refers to the pre-flame development phase.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Stages of Fire
ASIS POA Manual - Fire Growth and Development
NEW QUESTION # 101
Who must regularly study and analyze the channels of communication to be certain that the input they receive is accurate, relevant, timely, concise and informative?
- A. Information Security Information Officer
- B. Chief Minister
- C. Chief Security Officer
- D. Chief Information Officer
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 102
A company has selected a project manager to upgrade security at its manufacturing plants. A risk assessment for each plant has been completed. Which of the following is the first action of the project manager?
- A. Solicit a request for information
- B. Develop a concept design to solicit support from senior management
- C. Have construction documents prepared and sent to prospective contractors for bids
- D. Develop a phased implementation plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
After a risk assessment is completed, the first step for a project manager is to create a concept design. This outlines the proposed system and supports budget justification and strategic alignment with management's objectives. Gaining senior management buy-in is essential before progressing to detailed design or procurement.
A (RFI) may follow concept approval.
C (Construction documents) are created much later.
D (Implementation planning) is dependent on approved design and funding.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Project Management Process
POA Manual - Security System Project Lifecycle
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following statements does not describe characteristics applicable to perimeter lighting?
- A. Floodlights and Fresnel lenses are often used to illuminate isolated fence boundaries
- B. Light should be directed toward the protected area
- C. Lighting fixtures for perimeter illumination can be mounted on buildings and structures near the perimeter
- D. Mounting height is a primary determinant of lighting levels outside the perimeter boundary
Answer: B
Explanation:
In perimeter lighting, light should be directed away from the protected area (toward potential adversaries) to illuminate potential threats outside the fence or perimeter, making it easier to detect intrusions. Backlighting (placing the source behind the area being monitored) enhances visibility of trespassers without creating glare for security personnel.
A, C, and D correctly describe standard characteristics of perimeter lighting.
B incorrectly suggests the wrong direction for optimal lighting design.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Lighting in Physical Security
POA Manual - Perimeter Security and Illumination Standards
NEW QUESTION # 104
A complete contingency planning program has which of the following major elements?
- A. All of the above
- B. Business continuity
- C. Emergency response
- D. Crisis management
Answer: A
Explanation:
A comprehensive contingency planning program consists of:
Emergency Response: Immediate actions during a crisis to protect life and property.
Crisis Management: Command structure and coordination during an event.
Business Continuity: Efforts to maintain or quickly restore essential functions.
Together, these components form a resilient framework for organizational preparedness.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Contingency and Continuity Planning
PSP Study Guide - Emergency Preparedness and Crisis Response
NEW QUESTION # 105
Microwave sensors work best on targets moving through the detection zone:
- A. At low speed
- B. At high speed
- C. Laterally in relation to the sensor
- D. Toward or away from the sensor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
Microwave sensors, which work by emitting electromagnetic waves and detecting changes in the reflected signal, are most effective when a target moves laterally (side-to-side) across the detection zone. This movement creates the greatest frequency shift (Doppler effect), making it easier for the sensor to detect motion.
Movement directly toward or away (C) causes minimal frequency change and can go undetected.
Speed (B or D) matters, but direction relative to the sensor is the key factor for detection efficiency.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Intrusion Detection Technologies
POA Manual - Sensor Applications and Placement
NEW QUESTION # 106
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