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CREST CCRTM-MCLF Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Project Management, Governance & Oversight | - Roles & responsibilities of the control group - Stages of a red team engagement - Communications plans - Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity - Incident Management Response |
| Risk Management, Reporting and Communication | - Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks - Articulating Risk - Lexicon - Engagement Risk Management |
| Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding | - Secure Data Handling - Infrastructure Controls - Persistent vs Semi-Persistent implant design and risks - Implant Controls - Implant Core capabilities and risks - Implant Droppers capabilities and risks - Encryption vs Encoding |
| Threat Intelligence | - Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources - Considerations of Threat models - Sources of Threat Intelligence - Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies |
| Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation | - Rules of Engagements - Test plans - Types of scenarios - Contingencies / Client Facilitation |
| Key Concepts | - Red team, purple team testing, penetration testing - Terminology - Detection and Response Assessment - Red Team Frameworks - Attack Path Mapping and Attack Path Simulation |
| Planning & Scoping | - Stakeholders for engagements - Requirements Analysis (scoping) |
| Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management | - Ethical testing considerations - Additional relevant legislation or contractual information - Data handling legislation - Privacy legislation - Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation - Inadvertent and Collateral targeting |
| Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks | - Attack Methodology Frameworks - Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks - Physical access control bypasses and risks - Persistence Techniques and Risks - Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks - Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks - Cloud Environment Testing and Risks - Initial Access Techniques and Risks |
CREST Certified Red Team Manager - Multiple Choice Long Form Sample Questions:
Which of the following best describes the governance value of clearly distinguishing "client governance" (e.
g., the Control Group) from "provider governance" (e.g., the Red Team provider's internal project and quality management) within an engagement?
- A. Only client governance matters; provider-side governance is irrelevant to engagement success
- B. Clearly distinguishing these two governance layers helps ensure each party's specific accountabilities are properly understood and exercised, supporting a well-coordinated engagement with clear ownership on both sides
- C. There is no meaningful distinction to be made; both are the same function
- D. Only provider governance matters; the client has no meaningful governance role once the contract is signed
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Which regulatory bodies share supervisory interest in CBEST outcomes for UK banks and insurers?
- A. The Bank of England (including the PRA) and the Financial Conduct Authority
- B. The Information Commissioner's Office exclusively
- C. The European Central Bank exclusively
- D. Only the Bank of England
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Which of the following best describes the difference between Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) and Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) in threat intelligence?
- A. IOCs are typically specific, often short-lived technical artefacts (e.g., a particular IP address or file hash) associated with a compromise, while TTPs describe an actor's more persistent behavioural patterns and methodology, which tend to be more durable and harder for an actor to change
- B. TTPs are always less useful than IOCs for scenario design
- C. They are identical concepts with no meaningful distinction
- D. IOCs describe actor motivation, while TTPs describe actor nationality
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Which of the following best describes the appropriate scope of who within the Red Team provider organisation must comply with the agreed RoE?
- A. RoE compliance is optional for staff who personally disagree with a specific rule
- B. Only the most senior consultant on the engagement needs to comply; junior staff are exempt
- C. Every individual involved in delivering the engagement - regardless of seniority, including subcontractors - must understand and comply with the agreed RoE
- D. RoE compliance only applies during the specific hours defined as the "core" testing window, with no obligations outside that window
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Overall, which statement best captures why scoping is considered one of the most critical phases of any red team or intelligence-led testing engagement?
- A. Scoping decisions can always be easily and cost-free reversed later in the engagement with no consequence
- B. Scoping is a minor administrative step with limited bearing on the engagement's ultimate value or safety
- C. Scoping only matters for engagements delivered under a named regulatory framework
- D. Decisions made during scoping directly shape the engagement's legal authorisation boundaries, risk profile, resourcing adequacy, and ultimately whether the engagement will deliver genuinely useful, relevant insight
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